FE exam · common sections · checked against the July 2020 specifications
FE practice test: the sections all FE exams share
This FE practice test covers the part of the exam that every discipline shares: mathematics, probability and statistics, and ethics, in 70 problems with worked solutions. Engineering economics, also common to all of them, has its own page. Discipline problems are on each discipline’s practice test, linked below.
Updated Oct 29, 2026 · Not affiliated with NCEES.
problems on this page70
shared sections3
questions on the FE110
Pick your discipline
The shared sections take a different number of questions in each specification. The rest of each exam is on its own practice test:
FE Civil practice test: mathematics and statistics are one section, 8–12 questions; ethics 4–6.
FE Mechanical: mathematics 6–9, probability and statistics 4–6, ethics 4–6.
FE Chemical: mathematics 6–9, statistics 4–6, ethics 3–5.
Coming: FE Industrial and Systems (statistics alone 10–15) and FE Other Disciplines (mathematics 8–12).
Each discipline test carries its own small set of shared-section problems, drawn from the same pool as this page but never the same problems, so working both gives you new ones.
70 problems, filter by section
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Question 1 of 70 · Mathematics
Classify the conic section defined by the equation 3x2 − 4xy + 2y2 − 5x + 6y − 8 = 0.
Given
Equation 3x2 − 4xy + 2y2 − 5x + 6y − 8 = 0
Find
Type of conic section
Solution
For Ax2 + Bxy + Cy2 + Dx + Ey + F = 0 the sign of B2 − 4AC classifies the curve (FE Reference Handbook, Mathematics — Conic Sections).
B2 − 4AC = (−4)2 − 4(3)(2) = 16 − 24 = −8 < 0
Negative → ellipse; the 3 × 3 determinant (−25.5) is nonzero, so it is not degenerate.
Degenerate conics occur only when the full 3 × 3 determinant of the quadratic form is zero; here it is −25.5, so the curve does not split into lines.
A parabola needs B2 − 4AC exactly zero; here the discriminant is −8.
A circle needs B = 0 and A = C; this equation has an xy term and A ≠ C, so it is only the ellipse family.
A hyperbola needs B2 − 4AC > 0; this answer comes from reading −8 as positive or forgetting the minus in −4AC.
With A = 3, B = −4, C = 2 the discriminant B2 − 4AC = 16 − 24 = −8 is negative, and the curve is a real, non-degenerate ellipse.
Question 2 of 70 · Mathematics
Use two Newton–Raphson iterations, starting from x0 = 2, to approximate the root of f(x) = x3 − 2x − 5 nearest 2. What is x2 to four significant figures?
This is the whole root sum −b/a; the two complex roots (sum 2) were not subtracted.
This is only the real part of the complex root; the conjugate pair 1 ± 2i contributes 2 to the sum.
A sign slip in the product of the roots: r·(1 + 2i)(1 − 2i) = 5r must equal −d/a = 15, so r = 3; taking −15 gives −3.
This is the sum of the conjugate pair (1 + 2i) + (1 − 2i), not the third root.
The conjugate 1 − 2i is also a root, so r + 2 = 5 gives r = 3, and P(3) = 27 − 45 + 33 − 15 = 0.
Question 4 of 70 · Mathematics
The integral of f(x) over [0, 10] is computed with the trapezoidal rule. The largest value of |f″(x)| on the interval is 0.6. What is the minimum number of subintervals N that guarantees an absolute error less than 0.001?
50000 is N2, not N: the square root of 50,000 was never taken.
2236 solves the bound for a tolerance of 10−5 instead of 10−3.
775 drops the 12 from the denominator of the error bound, which inflates the requirement to N > 774.6.
The bound 50/N2 < 0.001 needs N > 223.6, so the smallest whole N is 224.
This truncates 223.6 instead of rounding up; at N = 223 the error bound is 50/2232 = 0.00101, still above 0.001.
Question 5 of 70 · Mathematics
A closed cylindrical tank of fixed volume V is to be built with the least total surface area (top, bottom and wall cost the same per unit area). What relationship between the height h and the radius r minimizes the surface area?
Solution
Substitute h = V/(πr2) and differentiate (FE Reference Handbook, Mathematics — Differential Calculus):
A(r) = 2πr2 + 2V/r
dA/dr = 4πr − 2V/r2 = 0 → V = 2πr3
h = V/(πr2) = 2r
This counts each end disk twice (the optimum when end material costs double); here all surfaces cost the same.
Minimizing A = 2πr2 + 2πrh with πr2h = V gives h = 2r, the height equal to the diameter.
Fixing V sets the size, not the shape: dA/dr = 0 gives V = 2πr3, and h/r = 2 for every volume.
This inverts the result: a squat tank with r = 2h has far more end area than needed.
This counts only one end disk, which is the optimum for an open-top tank; a closed tank has two.
Question 6 of 70 · Mathematics
The integral of f(x) = x4 over [0, 1] is computed with Simpson’s 1/3 rule. The error bound is |E| ≤ (b − a)h4·max|f(4)|/180. What is the minimum number of subintervals n that keeps the error at or below 10−5?
With n = 4 the bound is 24/(180 × 256) = 5.2 × 10−4, fifty times the tolerance.
With n = 6 the bound is 1.0 × 10−4, still ten times the tolerance.
This is the even number just below 10.75; n = 10 gives 1.33 × 10−5, which exceeds 10−5.
11 rounds 10.75 up correctly but ignores that Simpson’s 1/3 rule needs an even number of subintervals.
n4 ≥ 24/(180 × 10−5) = 13,333 gives n ≥ 10.75, and the next even integer is 12.
Question 7 of 70 · Mathematics
The concentration of a ground contaminant is modeled by C(x, y) = 100 − x2 + 2x − 2y2 + 4y. According to the second-derivative test, how is the critical point of this function classified?
Given
C(x, y) = 100 − x2 + 2x − 2y2 + 4y
Find
Location and type of the critical point
Solution
Set the gradient to zero, then test D = CxxCyy − Cxy2 (FE Reference Handbook, Mathematics — Differential Calculus):
D = (−2)(−4) − 0 = 8 > 0, Cxx = −2 < 0 → local maximum
A saddle needs D < 0; the mixed partial is zero and the pure second partials have the same sign, so D = 8.
Both the location (the linear coefficients) and the type are wrong; there is only one critical point, at (1, 1).
This takes the linear coefficients 2 and 4 as coordinates instead of solving Cx = 0 and Cy = 0.
The point is right, but a minimum needs Cxx > 0; here Cxx = −2.
Cx = −2x + 2 and Cy = −4y + 4 vanish at (1, 1), and D = (−2)(−4) − 0 = 8 > 0 with Cxx < 0.
Question 8 of 70 · Mathematics
The temperature in a bioreactor over a 9-hour cycle is T(t) = t3 − 12t2 + 36t (°C, t in hours) for 0 ≤ t ≤ 9. What is the maximum temperature reached during this interval?
Given
T(t) = t3 − 12t2 + 36t
Interval 0 ≤ t ≤ 9 h
Find
Maximum temperature on the interval (°C)
Solution
On a closed interval compare critical points and endpoints (FE Reference Handbook, Mathematics — Differential Calculus):
This is the local minimum at t = 6 (and the start value T(0)); it is the lowest, not the highest, temperature.
16 °C is T(4), the inflection point where T″ = 0; an inflection point is not an extremum.
32 °C is the interior local maximum at t = 2; the endpoint t = 9 must also be checked and is higher.
63 °C is T′(9), the slope at the endpoint, not the temperature there.
The candidates are T(0) = 0, T(2) = 32, T(6) = 0 and T(9) = 81, so the absolute maximum is at the endpoint.
Question 9 of 70 · Mathematics
A conical sludge hopper (vertex down) has a top diameter of 4 m and a depth of 4 m. Sludge enters at a constant 0.5 m3/min. How fast is the sludge level rising when the depth is 2 m?
Given
Top diameter 4 m, depth 4 m
Inflow dV/dt = 0.5 m3/min
Depth h = 2 m
Find
Rate of level rise dh/dt (m/min)
Solution
Similar triangles give r = h/2; differentiate the cone volume with respect to time (FE Reference Handbook, Mathematics — Differential Calculus):
V = (1/3)πr2h = πh3/12
dV/dt = (πh2/4)·dh/dt
dh/dt = 0.5/(π × 22/4) = 0.5/π = 0.159 m/min
0.040 m/min takes r = h (the 4 m diameter used as the radius at full depth), which quadruples the surface area.
0.053 m/min drops the 1/3 of the cone volume, treating the hopper like a cylinder of the same radius profile.
r = h/2 gives V = πh3/12, so dV/dt = (πh2/4)·dh/dt and dh/dt = 0.5/π = 0.159 m/min.
0.477 m/min differentiates V = πh3/12 without the chain-rule factor 3, i.e. dV/dt = (πh2/12)·dh/dt.
0.637 m/min takes r = h/4 (the ratio diameter/depth halved twice), which shrinks the surface area fourfold.
Question 10 of 70 · Mathematics
Using the excerpt from a superheated steam table below, apply linear interpolation to find the specific enthalpy of steam at 1.2 MPa and 275 °C.
Pressure (MPa)
Temperature (°C)
Enthalpy (kJ/kg)
1.0
250
2943.1
1.0
300
3051.6
1.5
250
2923.5
1.5
300
3038.9
Given
P = 1.2 MPa, T = 275 °C
h(1.0 MPa, 250 °C) = 2943.1 kJ/kg
h(1.0 MPa, 300 °C) = 3051.6 kJ/kg
h(1.5 MPa, 250 °C) = 2923.5 kJ/kg
h(1.5 MPa, 300 °C) = 3038.9 kJ/kg
Find
Specific enthalpy h (kJ/kg)
Solution
Interpolate in temperature on each pressure line, then in pressure (FE Reference Handbook, Mathematics — Numerical Methods, linear interpolation):
2935.3 kJ/kg interpolates only in pressure, on the 250 °C line: 2943.1 + 0.4(2923.5 − 2943.1); the temperature step to 275 °C is missing.
2981.2 kJ/kg is the 275 °C value on the 1.5 MPa line only; the pressure interpolation to 1.2 MPa was skipped.
2987.7 kJ/kg applies the pressure weight backwards (0.6 instead of 0.4 from the 1.0 MPa line), landing too close to 1.5 MPa.
2989.3 kJ/kg averages the two pressure lines with weight 0.5, as if 1.2 MPa were halfway between 1.0 and 1.5 MPa.
2997.35 kJ/kg at 1.0 MPa and 2981.20 kJ/kg at 1.5 MPa, then 2997.35 + 0.4(2981.20 − 2997.35) = 2990.9 kJ/kg.
Question 11 of 70 · Mathematics
A process instrument’s dynamic response is modeled by d2y/dt2 + 4·dy/dt + 4y = 3e−2t. What is the correct form of the particular solution yp(t) for the method of undetermined coefficients?
45.0 adds the x2 terms instead of subtracting them, integrating 2x2 + 6x: 18 + 27.
36.0 integrates 6x as 6x2 (forgets to halve the coefficient), giving −18 + 54.
27.0 keeps only the linear term, ∫036x dx = 27, and drops the −2x2 term.
18.0 keeps only the x2 terms, ∫032x2 dx = 18, and loses the 6x term.
The curves meet at x = 0 and x = 3, and ∫03(−2x2 + 6x) dx = −18 + 27 = 9.0.
Question 27 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
Seven turbidity measurements (NTU) are taken from a water source: 5, 8, 9, 12, 14, 15, 30. Using the interquartile-range method with fences at Q1 − 1.5·IQR and Q3 + 1.5·IQR, which value(s) are outliers?
Given
Data 5, 8, 9, 12, 14, 15, 30 NTU
Find
Outlier(s) by the 1.5·IQR rule
Solution
Quartiles as medians of the lower and upper halves:
Q1 = 8, Q3 = 15, IQR = 7
fences 8 − 10.5 = −2.5 and 15 + 10.5 = 25.5 NTU
Only 30 NTU lies outside. (With interpolated quartiles 8.5 and 14.5 the upper fence is 23.5 and the answer is the same.)
15 is Q3 itself, well inside the fences −2.5 to 25.5 NTU.
The lower fence is −2.5 NTU, so the smallest value 5 is not unusual; only the high end has an outlier.
The upper fence is 25.5 NTU, so 30 NTU lies outside it.
15 is the upper quartile, not an extreme value; only 30 exceeds the upper fence.
Q1 = 8 and Q3 = 15 give IQR = 7 and fences −2.5 and 25.5 NTU; only 30 falls outside (it stays the only one with any common quartile convention).
Question 28 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
Two independent water-quality samples are taken from a lake. Sample 1 has n = 6 and s = 5; sample 2 has n = 16 and s = 2. Assuming equal population variances, what is the pooled variance sp2?
Given
n1 = 6, s1 = 5
n2 = 16, s2 = 2
Find
Pooled variance sp2
Solution
Pooled variance (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Test Statistics):
sp2 = [(n1 − 1)s12 + (n2 − 1)s22]/(n1 + n2 − 2)
= (5 × 25 + 15 × 4)/20 = 185/20 = 9.25
3.04 is the pooled standard deviation √9.25, not the pooled variance the question asks for.
3.50 is the plain average of the two standard deviations, (5 + 2)/2; variances must be pooled, not standard deviations.
9.73 weights the variances by n instead of n − 1: (6 × 25 + 16 × 4)/22.
14.50 is the unweighted mean of the variances, (25 + 4)/2, which ignores the very different sample sizes.
Question 29 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
A hydrologist fits a log-normal distribution to annual streamflow data grouped into 12 bins. The distribution’s mean and standard deviation are estimated from the same data. How many degrees of freedom does the chi-square goodness-of-fit test have?
Given
Bins k = 12
Mean and standard deviation estimated from the data
Find
Degrees of freedom
Solution
Chi-square goodness of fit:
df = k − 1 − p = 12 − 1 − 2 = 9
12 uses the number of bins directly; the bin counts must sum to n, which costs one degree of freedom before any estimation.
11 is k − 1, which applies only when no parameters are estimated from the sample.
10 subtracts only one estimated parameter; both the mean and the standard deviation came from the data.
Df = k − 1 − p = 12 − 1 − 2 = 9.
8 subtracts one parameter too many; only two (the mean and the standard deviation) were estimated.
Question 30 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
An engineer fits the power law y = axb to hydraulic data by linear regression on Y = ln y versus X = ln x. The regression slope is 1.0, the mean of X is 2.0 and the mean of Y is 5.0. What is the coefficient a?
Given
Model y = axb
Regression of ln y on ln x: slope 1.0
X̄ = 2.0, Ȳ = 5.0
Find
Coefficient a
Solution
Least-squares line through the centroid (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Least Squares):
Ȳ = ln a + b·X̄ → ln a = 5.0 − 1.0 × 2.0 = 3.0
a = e3.0 = 20.1
The fitted line passes through (X̄, Ȳ), so ln a = 5.0 − 1.0 × 2.0 = 3.0 and a = e3 = 20.1.
7.39 is e2, the mean of X back-transformed; X̄ enters the intercept only through b·X̄.
3.00 is ln a, the intercept of the transformed line, before back-transforming with ex.
2.72 is e1, the slope b back-transformed; b is already the exponent and needs no conversion.
1.10 is ln 3, the logarithm of the intercept taken again instead of back-transforming it with ex.
Question 31 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
The product concentration of a chemical process is normally distributed with a mean of 95.0% and a standard deviation of 1.2%. What is the probability that a randomly selected batch has a concentration above 97.0%?
Given
μ = 95.0%
σ = 1.2%
x = 97.0%
Find
P(concentration > 97.0%)
Solution
Standardize and read the unit normal table (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Normal Distribution):
z = (x − μ)/σ = (97.0 − 95.0)/1.2 = 1.67
P(Z > 1.67) = 1 − 0.9525 = 0.0475 = 4.75%
z = (97 − 95)/1.2 = 1.67, and the upper-tail area beyond z = 1.67 is 0.0475, i.e. 4.75%.
9.50% is the two-tailed area beyond ±1.67; the question asks only about the high side.
45.25% is the area between the mean and z = 1.67, not the tail beyond it.
95.25% is Φ(1.67), the probability of a concentration below 97.0%.
Question 32 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
A production line fills bottles to a target of 500 mL. An X-bar chart with limits at μ ± 3σ/√n is used, with μ = 500 mL, σ = 4 mL and samples of n = 4 taken hourly. What are the lower and upper control limits?
Given
μ = 500 mL
σ = 4 mL
n = 4
Find
LCL and UCL
Solution
X-bar chart limits:
UCL, LCL = μ ± 3σ/√n = 500 ± 3(4)/√4 = 500 ± 6 → 494 mL and 506 mL
488 mL and 512 mL is μ ± 3σ, the limits for individual bottles; sample means vary less, by the factor √n.
492 mL and 508 mL is μ ± 2σ for individual bottles: both the √n and the 3-sigma width are wrong.
3σ/√n = 3 × 4/2 = 6 mL, so the limits are 494 mL and 506 mL.
496 mL and 504 mL is μ ± 2σ/√n, two-sigma limits instead of the three-sigma limits the chart uses.
Question 33 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
Defects in a reactor product occur randomly at an average rate of 0.002 per unit volume. If 1,500 volume units are processed and defects follow a Poisson distribution, what is the probability of exactly 3 defects?
Given
Rate 0.002 per unit volume
Volume 1,500 units
x = 3
Find
P(X = 3)
Solution
Scale λ to the interval, then apply the Poisson pmf (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Poisson Distribution):
λ = 1,500 × 0.002 = 3
P(X = 3) = e−3·33/3! = 0.0498 × 27/6 = 0.224
64.7% is the cumulative P(X ≤ 3), the chance of three or fewer defects, not exactly three.
λ = 1,500 × 0.002 = 3, and P(X = 3) = e−3·33/3! = 0.224, i.e. 22.4%.
16.8% is P(X = 4), one count too many in the λx/x! term.
4.98% is e−3, the probability of zero defects, P(X = 0).
Question 34 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
The standard deviation of concrete cylinder strengths on a project is 3.5 MPa. If 100 cylinders are tested, what is the standard error of the mean?
Given
σ = 3.5 MPa
n = 100
Find
Standard error of the mean
Solution
Standard error of the mean (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics):
SE = σ/√n = 3.5/10 = 0.35 MPa
0.035 MPa divides by n = 100 instead of √n = 10.
SE = σ/√n = 3.5/√100 = 0.35 MPa.
0.70 MPa is about two standard errors (the half-width of a 95% interval), not the standard error itself.
3.5 MPa is the standard deviation of single cylinders; the mean of 100 cylinders varies far less.
Question 35 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
A sample of n = 49 has a mean of 30 and a variance of 16. Using z = 2.576, what is the 99% confidence interval for the true mean?
Given
n = 49
x̄ = 30
Variance 16
z = 2.576
Find
99% confidence interval
Solution
Confidence interval on a mean with known σ (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Confidence Intervals):
x̄ ± zσ/√n = 30 ± 2.576 × 4/7 = 30 ± 1.47
28.53 to 31.47
This divides σ by n = 49 instead of √n = 7.
This uses the variance 16 as if it were the standard deviation; σ = √16 = 4.
This uses z = 1.96, the 95% value, instead of 2.576.
σ = 4, SE = 4/7 = 0.571, and 2.576 × 0.571 = 1.47 around the mean of 30.
Question 36 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
A digital link has a bit-error probability of 0.01. If 8 bits are sent independently, what is the probability that exactly one bit is received in error?
Given
p = 0.01
n = 8
k = 1
Find
P(exactly one error)
Solution
Binomial distribution (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Binomial Distribution):
A signal-processing system has two independent stages with reliabilities 0.95 and 0.90. Both stages must work for the system to work. What is the system reliability?
Given
R1 = 0.95
R2 = 0.90
Both stages must work
Find
System reliability
Solution
Independent components in series:
Rs = R1R2 = 0.95 × 0.90 = 0.855 = 85.5%
For components in series R = R1R2 = 0.95 × 0.90 = 0.855 = 85.5%.
90.0% takes the weakest stage as the system value; in series the system is always less reliable than its weakest part.
92.5% averages the two reliabilities; reliabilities of independent series stages multiply.
99.5% is the parallel (redundant) result 1 − (0.05)(0.10), where only one stage needs to work.
Question 38 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
A sample of 6 power measurements gives 100, 105, 110, 115, 120 and 130 W. What is the sample standard deviation, rounded to the nearest watt?
Given
Data 100, 105, 110, 115, 120, 130 W
n = 6
Find
Sample standard deviation s (W)
Solution
Sample standard deviation (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Dispersion):
4 W is the standard error of the mean, s/√n = 10.8/√6 = 4.4 ≈ 4 W, not the spread of single readings.
This is the mean absolute deviation (50/6 = 8.3 W), not the standard deviation.
10 W divides the sum of squares by n = 6 (population formula) instead of n − 1 = 5.
The mean is 113.33 W, the squared deviations sum to 583.3 W2, and s = √(583.3/5) = 10.8 W.
Question 39 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
In a plant, 60% of products come from Machine A and 40% from Machine B. Machine A produces 2% defective items and Machine B produces 5%. What is the probability that a randomly selected defective item came from Machine A?
Given
P(A) = 0.60, P(B) = 0.40
P(D|A) = 0.02, P(D|B) = 0.05
Find
P(A|D)
Solution
Bayes’ theorem (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Probability Laws):
P(D) = 0.60(0.02) + 0.40(0.05) = 0.032
P(A|D) = 0.012/0.032 = 0.375 = 37.5%
28.6% ignores the production shares and compares only the defect rates, 0.02/(0.02 + 0.05).
60.0% is the prior share of Machine A; it does not update for the information that the item is defective.
62.5% is P(B|D) = 0.020/0.032, the posterior for the other machine.
Question 40 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
A quality engineer measures 25 resistors: the mean is 470 Ω and the sample standard deviation is 10 Ω. For a 95% confidence interval with t = 2.064, what is the margin of error?
Given
n = 25
s = 10 Ω
t = 2.064
Find
Margin of error (Ω)
Solution
Confidence interval on a mean with unknown σ (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Confidence Intervals):
E = t·s/√n = 2.064 × 10/√25 = 4.13 Ω
20.6 Ω multiplies t by s without dividing by √n.
10.0 Ω is the sample standard deviation, the spread of single resistors.
8.3 Ω is the full width of the interval, 2 × 2.064 × 10/5; the margin of error is half of it.
E = t·s/√n = 2.064 × 10/5 = 4.13 Ω.
Question 41 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
Two independent sensors read X ~ N(10.0 V, (0.5 V)2) and Y ~ N(9.8 V, (0.4 V)2). What is the probability that the reading of X exceeds that of Y?
Given
X ~ N(10.0 V, (0.5 V)2)
Y ~ N(9.8 V, (0.4 V)2)
Find
P(X > Y)
Solution
Difference of independent normals (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Normal Distribution):
D = X − Y ~ N(0.2, 0.41), σD = 0.640 V
P(D > 0) = P(Z > −0.2/0.640) = Φ(0.31) = 0.623
74.8% subtracts the variances (0.25 − 0.16); variances of a difference add, they never cancel.
D = X − Y has mean 0.2 V and σ = √(0.25 + 0.16) = 0.640 V, so P(D > 0) = Φ(0.31) = 0.623 = 62.3%.
58.8% adds the standard deviations (0.5 + 0.4 = 0.9 V); for independent variables the variances add.
37.7% is P(X < Y), the complement of the asked probability.
Question 42 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
A discrete random variable X has the probability mass function f(x) = kx2 for x = 1, 2, 3, 4. What are the normalization constant k and the variance of X?
Given
f(x) = kx2, x = 1, 2, 3, 4
Find
k and Var(X)
Solution
Normalize, then use Var = E[X2] − (E[X])2 (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Expected Values):
Σx2 = 30 gives k = 1/30, E[X] = 100/30 = 10/3, E[X2] = 354/30 = 59/5, and Var = 59/5 − 100/9 = 31/45.
The constant is right, but 10/3 is the mean E[X], not the variance.
This normalizes f(x) = kx (Σx = 10) instead of kx2; the variance 1 follows from that wrong pmf.
The constant is right, but 59/5 is E[X2]; the squared mean (10/3)2 was never subtracted.
Question 43 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
A batch of 100 integrated circuits contains 5 defective units. If two circuits are selected at random without replacement, what is the probability that both are defective?
Given
N = 100, defective = 5
2 drawn without replacement
Find
P(both defective)
Solution
Multiply the conditional probabilities:
P = (5/100) × (4/99) = 0.00202 = 0.20%
10.00% adds the two draws’ probabilities; for “both” the conditional probabilities multiply.
5.00% is only the first draw; the second must also be defective.
0.25% is (5/100)2, sampling with replacement; after one defective is drawn only 4 of 99 remain.
(5/100)(4/99) = 20/9,900 = 0.0020 = 0.20%.
Question 44 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
How many combinations are there of 6 items taken 2 at a time?
Given
n = 6
r = 2
Find
C(6, 2)
Solution
Combinations (FE Reference Handbook, Probability and Statistics — Permutations and Combinations):
C(n, r) = n!/[r!(n − r)!] = 6!/(2!·4!) = 15
30 is the number of permutations P(6, 2) = 6 × 5, which counts each pair twice (AB and BA).
C(6, 2) = 6!/(2!·4!) = 30/2 = 15.
12 multiplies 6 × 2, which does not count pairs.
6 is the number of items, not the number of pairs.
Question 45 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
An engineer is offered a gift worth $500 by a vendor who is bidding on a project the engineer is evaluating. What should the engineer do?
Solution
The NSPE Code (II.4.c, II.5.b) forbids soliciting or accepting valuable consideration from parties connected with work the engineer is responsible for; the safe course is to decline and tell the employer.
Equal gifts from all bidders are still consideration from interested parties; they do not cancel each other out.
What the engineer does with the money afterwards does not change that a bidder gave value to the evaluator.
Disclosure after the decision does nothing for the fairness of the evaluation; the gift is improper when it is accepted.
Codes of ethics bar accepting valuable gifts from parties seeking work the engineer influences, and reporting the offer protects the evaluation.
Question 46 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
An engineer recommends a filtration vendor for a municipal project, and the municipality will select the vendor based on this recommendation. The engineer owns stock in the vendor’s parent company and has told their employer about it. What additional step do the conflict-of-interest rules require?
Solution
NSPE Code II.4.a: engineers shall disclose all known or potential conflicts of interest that could influence or appear to influence their judgment or the quality of their services. The disclosure must reach the party relying on that judgment: the municipality chooses the vendor on the engineer’s recommendation, so telling only the employer leaves the decision-maker uninformed.
Divesting later does not cure the recommendation already made, and the rules require disclosure, not a sale.
A statement from the interested vendor is not disclosure to the client and adds no independence.
The employer is only one affected party; the client deciding on the vendor has not been told.
Giving away the profit leaves the client uninformed; the duty is to disclose the conflict, not to forgo the gain.
The conflict must be disclosed to every party whose interests it may affect, and the municipality is the client relying on the recommendation.
Question 47 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
During foundation excavation a contractor hits rock at elevation −12 ft, although the contract boring logs show soil to elevation −20 ft. The contractor keeps daily logs and photos from the day of discovery but sends no written notice to the engineer until 3 weeks later. Which element of a differing-site-conditions claim is weakest, and what would most strengthen it?
Solution
A differing-site-conditions claim rests on a material difference from the contract indications, unforeseeability, causation of cost or delay, and timely written notice. Logs and photos cover the facts; the 3-week delay in written notice is the weak link, so notice should be given at once with the records attached.
The daily logs and photos from the day of discovery are already contemporaneous; later affidavits add little.
A schedule analysis quantifies impact later, but nothing in the facts shows causation is in doubt; the missing notice is the gap.
Most contracts make prompt written notice a condition of the claim; the 3-week gap is the one element with a documented failure, and notice with the contemporaneous records limits it.
Rock 8 ft above the logged soil depth is a clear material difference; surveying adds detail, not entitlement.
The boring logs showed soil to −20 ft, so the rock contradicts the contract indications; foreseeability is the strong part of this claim.
Question 48 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
A company has developed a new chemical formulation that it wants to keep secret indefinitely. Which form of intellectual property protection fits best?
Solution
Trade secrets protect confidential business information for as long as secrecy is maintained; patents trade a 20-year exclusive right for full public disclosure.
Copyright protects the expression of a work (text, drawings, code), not a formulation or the idea behind it.
A trade secret lasts as long as the information stays confidential and is protected by reasonable secrecy measures, with no fixed term.
A trademark protects a brand name or logo that identifies the source of goods, not the composition of the product.
A utility patent requires public disclosure of the invention and expires 20 years after filing, which defeats indefinite secrecy.
Question 49 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
An employer asks an engineer to certify a design that the engineer did not prepare and has not reviewed. What should the engineer do?
Solution
NSPE Code II.2.b: engineers shall not affix their signatures to any plans or documents not prepared under their direction and control (NCEES Model Rules: responsible charge). A management directive cannot replace that; the engineer declines to certify work they have not examined and taken responsibility for.
A disclaimer does not undo a certification; signing still represents that the engineer stands behind work they have not examined.
Delegating the signature shifts the same problem to someone with even less basis for it.
A certification asserts the engineer’s own knowledge of the design; without examining it and taking responsible charge, the engineer cannot sign.
A management directive does not supply the knowledge a certification asserts; the engineer’s professional judgment cannot be overruled into a signature.
Question 50 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
Under which circumstance may a chemical engineer ethically disclose confidential information about a client’s process without the client’s consent?
Solution
The NSPE Code (II.1.c) lets engineers reveal confidential information without consent only as authorized or required by law or by the Code, and public safety is paramount (I.1).
Research value does not override confidentiality; publication needs the client’s consent.
Personal gain is never a ground for breaking confidentiality; this is exactly what the duty forbids.
A payment dispute is settled by contract remedies, not by revealing the client’s process.
Confidentiality yields when disclosure is required by law or to protect public health and safety.
Question 51 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
Software code that an employee engineer writes during working hours as part of the job, using company resources, is usually protected as:
Solution
Under U.S. copyright law (17 U.S.C. 101) a work prepared by an employee within the scope of employment is a work made for hire, and the employer is the author and owner.
Patents are not automatic and code is not patented by default; ownership would also follow the employment agreement.
Code is a work of authorship; written within the scope of employment it is a work made for hire, so the employer owns the copyright.
A trademark identifies the source of goods (a name or logo); it does not protect code.
Code may be kept confidential, but there is no default joint ownership between employee and employer.
Question 52 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
How long does a U.S. utility patent on a new integrated-circuit design normally provide protection?
Solution
35 U.S.C. 154: a utility patent term ends 20 years from the earliest effective U.S. filing date (subject to term adjustments). Design patents: 15 years from grant; copyright: life + 70 years.
Only trademarks can be renewed indefinitely while in use; maintenance fees cannot extend a patent past its term.
A utility patent normally runs 20 years from the filing date of the application, provided maintenance fees are paid.
This is the term of a design patent (for applications filed since May 2015), not a utility patent.
Life plus 70 years is the copyright term for works by individual authors.
Question 53 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
An engineer finds that a colleague is taking credit for work others did on a technical paper. What is the most appropriate first step?
Solution
The NSPE Code (III.9) requires engineers to give credit to those to whom it is due; the usual first step on a credit dispute is to raise it with the person involved, then escalate if it is not corrected.
Giving credit where due is a duty, and a private conversation lets the colleague correct the record before it is escalated.
Escalating before any attempt to resolve an authorship dispute directly is premature; a board report may follow if the colleague persists.
Misrepresenting credit is an ethics issue regardless of how common it is; ignoring it condones it.
Public accusations are unprofessional and can injure a colleague’s reputation without due process.
Question 54 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
Which of the following is NOT typically covered by a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) on a chemical engineering project?
Solution
A project NDA protects the confidential technical and business information exchanged for the project (formulations, design data, know-how); employee compensation is governed by employment agreements.
Pay of team members is an employment matter, not the proprietary technical information a project NDA covers.
Formulations are core proprietary information and the usual subject of a project NDA.
Know-how about how a product is made is exactly what an NDA is written to protect.
Operating conditions and design parameters are confidential technical data an NDA protects.
Question 55 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
A chemical engineer discovers that a colleague has falsified quality-control data to meet a production deadline. The product will ship to customers this week. What is the most appropriate action?
Solution
NSPE Code II.1.f: engineers having knowledge of an alleged violation shall report it to appropriate bodies; II.3.a: reports and data must be objective and truthful. With the product about to ship, the falsification goes at once to the person responsible for quality, so the product can be held.
Knowledge of a violation creates a duty to report it; staying silent lets the product ship.
Waiting for field failures puts the public at the very risk the QC data exist to prevent.
Falsified QC data can put an unsafe product in customers’ hands; engineers who know of such a violation must report it so the product can be held and the data corrected.
Altering records without telling anyone is itself falsification and leaves the shipped product unchecked.
Question 56 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
A chemical engineer is asked to give expert testimony in a lawsuit about a process similar to one they designed for a former client. What is the primary ethical consideration?
Solution
NSPE Code III.4: engineers shall not disclose confidential information about the business affairs or technical processes of any present or former client without consent; testimony must also be objective and truthful (II.3.a).
Personal risk management is not an ethical obligation owed to anyone else.
The duty of confidentiality to a former client survives the engagement and limits what the engineer may use or reveal in court.
Expert testimony must be objective and truthful regardless of who pays for it.
The fee is a business term; it is not the ethical issue the prior engagement raises.
Question 57 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
Which statement best describes how membership in a professional society relates to ethical obligations?
Solution
Professional society codes (for example the NSPE Code of Ethics) are binding on members; licensing boards enforce their own rules of professional conduct separately on licensees.
Joining a society adds obligations; it never releases anyone from licensing-board rules or the law.
Societies can censure, suspend or expel members who violate their codes.
A member accepts the society’s code by joining, so it applies to licensed and unlicensed members alike.
Licensure is a state legal status; society codes bind members by membership, not by license.
Question 58 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
The owner asks a project engineer to certify a monthly pay application that includes concrete the engineer saw had visible honeycomb voids. The contractor has not yet repaired the defect, and the owner says certification is needed to maintain cash flow. What best meets the engineer’s professional duties?
Solution
Certification of a pay application represents that the work covered conforms to the contract. The engineer withholds the value of the defective work, documents it in writing to owner and contractor, and certifies the rest.
Legal comfort for the owner does not change the engineer’s duty to certify accurately.
Certifying payment for work known to be defective misrepresents its condition, whatever is noted in the file.
A bond covers the money, not the truth of the certificate; the work is still defective today.
The owner’s acceptance does not make the certification truthful; the engineer would still be certifying defective work.
The engineer certifies only conforming work and documents the defect; the withheld amount is released once the repair is accepted.
Question 59 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
An engineer reviewing project documents finds a known safety hazard. A superior instructs the engineer to remove references to the hazard so the project gets approved. What should the engineer do?
Solution
NSPE Code I.1, II.3.a and III.3: engineers hold public safety paramount and are objective and truthful in reports; they may not omit material facts to obtain approval.
A hidden note does not correct the approved documents; reviewers would rely on a false record.
Hoping for a later fix leaves the hazard unknown to those approving the work.
Schedule pressure never justifies hiding a safety hazard.
Reports must be truthful and complete, and public safety comes first; omitting a known hazard to win approval is misrepresentation.
Question 60 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
During a peer review, an engineer notices misleading safety claims in a project report. What is the most appropriate action?
Solution
NSPE Code II.3.a: engineers are objective and truthful in professional reports; a reviewer who finds misleading safety claims records them and asks for independent verification.
A reviewer must be objective: record the discrepancies and have the safety claims checked before the report is relied on.
Approval would put the reviewer’s name behind claims they know are misleading.
Cosmetic edits leave the misleading safety claims in place.
Safety claims are within any engineering review; ignoring them fails the reviewer’s duty.
Question 61 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
Under competitive pressure to finish a safety report quickly, an engineer considers skipping some verification steps. What should the engineer do?
Solution
NSPE Code I.1 and II.1: public safety is paramount over economic or schedule pressure; the engineer completes and documents all verification steps.
Unsupervised delegation leaves no one responsible for the check the report depends on.
No verification step of a safety report is optional because of a deadline; “minor” is a judgment made after checking, not before.
Old data may not fit the current design; reusing it unchecked is the same as skipping verification.
Public safety outranks schedule and market pressure, so the report must be fully verified and its basis recorded.
Question 62 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
Because of an email mistake, an engineer receives a competitor’s proprietary design information. What should the engineer do with it?
Solution
NSPE Code III.4 and the NCEES Model Rules: engineers respect the confidential information of others and do not use it without consent; the proper response to a misdirected transmission is to notify the sender and not use the material.
Respecting others’ confidential information means not using or spreading it and telling the owner of the error.
Spreading the information inside the firm multiplies the breach.
Retaining it for later use is still using another firm’s confidential information.
Using information that is plainly proprietary to someone else is misappropriation, however it arrived.
Question 63 of 70 · Mathematics
Which expression is the indefinite integral ∫ 4xe2x dx, evaluated by integration by parts?
Given
Integrand 4xe2x
Find
Antiderivative
Solution
Integration by parts (FE Reference Handbook, Mathematics — Integral Calculus): u = 4x, du = 4 dx, dv = e2x dx, v = ½e2x.
∫u dv = uv − ∫v du = 2xe2x − ∫2e2x dx = 2xe2x − e2x + C = e2x(2x − 1) + C
u = 4x, v = ½e2x, so 2xe2x − ∫2e2x dx = 2xe2x − e2x + C.
This keeps only the uv term and forgets to subtract ∫v du.
This differentiates dv instead of integrating it (v = 2e2x instead of ½e2x).
This drops the ½ in the second integration: ∫2e2x dx is e2x, not 2e2x.
This adds ∫v du instead of subtracting it; differentiating gives 4xe2x + 4e2x, not the integrand.
Question 64 of 70 · Mathematics
An equilibrium analysis gives three unknown forces T1, T2 and T3 (in newtons) that satisfy:
T1 + T2 + T3 = 100
2T1 − T2 + T3 = 50
−T1 + 2T2 − T3 = 0
What is T3?
Given
T1 + T2 + T3 = 100
2T1 − T2 + T3 = 50
−T1 + 2T2 − T3 = 0
Find
T3 (N)
Solution
Add rows 1 and 3, then subtract row 2 from row 1:
3T2 = 100 → T2 = 33.3 N
−T1 + 2T2 = 50 → T1 = 16.7 N
T3 = 100 − 16.7 − 33.3 = 50.0 N
16.7 N is T1; the elimination stopped one back-substitution early.
33.3 N is T2, which drops out first (rows 1 + 3 give 3T2 = 100).
T2 = 33.3 N, T1 = 16.7 N, and row 1 then gives T3 = 100 − 50 = 50.0 N.
66.7 N is T1 + T3, i.e. 100 − T2; the remaining unknown was not separated.
83.3 N is 100 − T1: T2 was left inside the result instead of being subtracted too.
Question 65 of 70 · Mathematics
A steady-state mass balance gives this linear system for three stream flow rates x, y and z (kg/h):
2x + 3y − z = 10
4x − y + 2z = 15
6x + 2y + z = 25
Using the determinant of the coefficient matrix and a consistency check, what is the nature of the solution?
Row 3 = row 1 + row 2 on both sides (6x + 2y + z = 10 + 15 = 25), so the system is consistent with one redundant equation → infinitely many solutions.
That would need det = 0 with an inconsistent right side; here 10 + 15 matches 25, so the equations agree.
A linear system has zero, one or infinitely many solutions; three unknowns do not mean three solutions.
The trivial solution belongs to a homogeneous system; with right sides 10, 15 and 25 zero flows do not satisfy any equation.
Det = 0 and row 3 equals row 1 + row 2 including the right side (10 + 15 = 25), so one equation is redundant.
A unique solution needs a nonzero determinant; here det = 0, so the coefficient matrix is singular.
Question 66 of 70 · Mathematics
What is the general solution of the differential equation dy/dx + 2xy = 4x?
Given
dy/dx + 2xy = 4x
Find
General solution y(x)
Solution
Linear first-order equation with P(x) = 2x (FE Reference Handbook, Mathematics — Differential Equations):
μ = e∫2x dx = ex2
(yex2)′ = 4xex2 → yex2 = 2ex2 + C
y = 2 + Ce−x2
μ = ex2, so (yex2)′ = 4xex2, yex2 = 2ex2 + C, and y = 2 + Ce−x2.
This flips the sign of the exponent and forgets to divide 4x by the 2x that comes with μ.
The homogeneous part is right, but 2x does not satisfy the equation: substituting gives 2 + 4x2 ≠ 4x.
The particular part 2 is right, but the homogeneous solution of y′ + 2xy = 0 is Ce−x2, not Cx2.
Question 67 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
Confidence level
Lower bound (%)
Upper bound (%)
90%
0.15
2.45
95%
−0.07
2.67
99%
−0.50
3.10
An engineer compares the mean yield difference μd = μA − μB of two catalysts, with H0: μd = 0 and Ha: μd ≠ 0. The two-sided confidence intervals for the mean difference are shown in the table. Based on the duality between confidence intervals and two-sided tests, which decision is correct?
Solution
A two-sided test at level α rejects H0 exactly when the (1 − α) interval excludes the null value 0.
90%: [0.15, 2.45] excludes 0 → reject at α = 0.10
95%: [−0.07, 2.67] contains 0 → fail to reject at α = 0.05
Failing to reject never proves H0; it only means the data are consistent with zero difference at that level.
At α = 0.10 the 90% interval [0.15, 2.45] excludes zero, so H0 is rejected at that level.
If the wider 95% interval excluded 0, the narrower 90% one would too, so rejecting at 0.05 but not at 0.10 is impossible.
Rejection at α = 0.05 needs the 95% interval to exclude 0, but its lower bound is −0.07.
The 90% interval excludes 0 and the 95% interval contains it, so the p-value lies between 0.05 and 0.10.
Question 68 of 70 · Probability and Statistics
A plant alarm system monitors a workspace for hydrogen sulfide leaks. Its null hypothesis is that no leak is present. If the monitoring algorithm commits a Type II error, what happens in the plant?
Solution
H0: no leak. Type I error = reject a true H0 (false alarm). Type II error = fail to reject a false H0 (missed detection): the leak is real and the alarm does not sound.
This is a correct rejection of a false H0 (the test’s power), not an error at all.
This is a Type I error, rejecting a true H0: a false alarm with no leak behind it.
Recalibration is a maintenance action, not a test outcome; raising the threshold would in fact make Type II errors more likely.
Costs are a business consequence of any alarm program, not the outcome of a single wrong decision about H0.
A Type II error fails to reject a false H0: a leak exists, the alarm stays silent, and people keep working in the gas.
Question 69 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
An environmental engineer is asked to seal a plan set that includes the structural design of a heavy-equipment platform. The engineer is not competent in structural design but discussed it with a licensed structural colleague, who said verbally that it is adequate. What should the engineer do?
Solution
NSPE Code II.2.a–b and the NCEES Model Rules: engineers perform services and affix their seal only in areas of their competence, on work prepared under their direction and control.
A co-signature does not give the sealing engineer competence or responsible charge for the structural design.
A handbook check by a non-specialist is not the competence needed to take responsibility for a structural design.
A seal says the work is the sealer’s responsibility; a disclaimer on the same sheet contradicts it.
A verbal assurance from someone else does not give the sealing engineer competence or responsible charge.
Licensees seal only work within their competence and responsible charge; the structural sheets should be sealed by the qualified engineer who takes charge of them.
Question 70 of 70 · Ethics and Professional Practice
A process engineer finds a toxic gas leak that threatens a nearby neighborhood. Management refuses to shut down the plant, citing production quotas, and internal appeals have been rejected. What does the engineer’s code of ethics require next?
Solution
NSPE Code II.1.a: if engineers’ judgment is overruled under circumstances that endanger life or property, they shall notify their employer or client and such other authority as may be appropriate. Public safety is paramount (I.1).
The danger is already confirmed and imminent; more review only delays action.
Sabotage is unlawful and can create new hazards; the proper channel is the regulator.
Leaving the job does not protect the neighborhood; the hazard and the duty remain.
Documentation is useful but does nothing to stop the exposure; the public still is not protected.
When an employer overrules a judgment that endangers the public, engineers must notify the appropriate authority.
Answer every question to see your score
Mathematics
All five specifications on this site test analytic geometry and calculus. Beyond that they diverge:
Differential equations: Mechanical, Electrical and Computer, Environmental and Chemical; Chemical lists partial differential equations and Laplace transforms too.
Linear algebra and vectors: Mechanical and Electrical and Computer by name, Civil as vector operations.
Numerical methods (approximation, error propagation, Taylor series): Mechanical, Environmental and Chemical.
Complex numbers and discrete mathematics: Electrical and Computer, whose math range is also the widest of the five.
On test day the formulas are in the Handbook’s Mathematics chapter. Significant-figure rules are not: NCEES errata place them in Units and Conversion Factors (June 2023 notice).
Common traps: a calculator left in degree mode while you differentiate or integrate a trig function; log and ln swapped in a rearranged equation; an answer read to more figures than the data support. Applied math also turns up inside other sections, such as Laplace transforms in linear systems and vector moments in statics.
Probability and statistics
Weights vary widely here: FE Civil folds statistics into its math section, the four other disciplines on this site give it 4–6 questions, and FE Industrial and Systems gives it 10–15. What the specifications list:
All five: distributions (normal, binomial, discrete, continuous) and measures of central tendency and dispersion.
Confidence intervals and regression: Civil, Mechanical, Environmental and Chemical.
Hypothesis testing (t-tests, outlier tests, analysis of variance): Environmental and Chemical.
Expected value in decisions: Mechanical, Electrical and Computer, and Chemical.
Control limits: Chemical, under statistical control.
The Handbook chapter is Engineering Probability and Statistics, and it has been corrected twice in recent printings, so drill from the copy in your MyNCEES account. Common traps: reading a two-tail area from the unit normal table when the question asks for one tail, and pooling data that the problem treats as two separate samples. Reliability questions on the electrical side lean on these rules too (computer systems).
Ethics and professional practice
Ethics questions are short scenarios with one defensible action. The core, codes of ethics, is on all five specifications here; each discipline adds its own angle:
NCEES Model Law: named in the Mechanical and Electrical and Computer specifications, the Model Rules in Electrical and Computer. Both are free to read (Model Law, Model Rules).
Intellectual property (copyright, trade secrets, patents, trademarks): Mechanical, Electrical and Computer, and Chemical.
Contracts: Civil and Chemical. Professional liability and licensure: Civil, Environmental and Chemical.
Regulations: Environmental names federal statutes, among them the Clean Water and Clean Air Acts, RCRA and OSHA.
Safety: Electrical and Computer lists grounding, PPE and radiation protection.
Read each scenario for three things before the options: whom the engineer works for, who carries the risk, and what has already been tried. Options that are each reasonable in isolation are the usual way these items discriminate. Construction contract scenarios with more numbers in them live on FE Civil construction.
The fourth shared section
Engineering economics is on all seven FE specifications too, but it has its own page with the interest-factor formulas and a worked example: FE engineering economics.
Discipline practice tests
FE Civil practice test60 FE Civil problems across all 14 sections, with worked solutions
Yes. For each of the five disciplines here NCEES sells two 50-question practice exams at $50 each (store price as of October 2026), built on the July 2020 specifications. This page is not one of them and uses none of their items.
Are these real FE exam questions?
No. Each one was set for this site against a section of the July 2020 specification and solved again by a second reviewer without the key; NCEES keeps its exam items confidential.
How much of the FE is math?
It depends on the discipline: 6–9 questions on FE Mechanical, 11–17 on FE Electrical and Computer, and 8–12 on FE Civil, where statistics is included.